Prepare effectively for the HESI practice tests, strategies, and resources to boost your confidence, improve speed, and master key concepts.

HESI Practice Tests by Subject

When preparing for the HESI exam, focusing on subject-specific areas is important. You can easily find extra practice tests that are tailored for each subject you’re working on. Whether you’re struggling with Mathematics, Reading Comprehension, or Vocabulary, you can click on the subject that you need help with and get started right away. Taking these practice tests will give you a better understanding of what areas require more focus and where you need improvement.

The great part of these subject-specific tests is that they help target your weak areas, allowing you to improve step by step. By practicing in these small, manageable sections, you’ll feel more confident and prepared when it’s time for the real test. Don’t hesitate to explore the subjects below and get the extra practice you need to succeed.

HESI A2 Mathematics Test

The HESI A2 Mathematics Test covers a wide variety of basic math topics that you’ll need to master before taking the exam. These include fundamental skills like addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division, as well as decimals, fractions, percentages, algebra, and ratios. Each of these topics is essential for your success, and you’ll want to prepare thoroughly for this section.

To study effectively, make sure to review everything covered in this test. The page that contains practice questions for the HESI A2 Mathematics Test includes all the necessary topics, ensuring you don’t miss out on anything crucial. Focus on understanding the concepts, practicing the questions, and ensuring that you know how to apply the math in each scenario. Once you feel confident, you’ll be ready to tackle this section without any issues.

Math- HESI Practice Test

1 / 50

Simplify the expression below. Which of the following is correct?
5,344−57">5,344−57

2 / 50

Solve the equation below. Which of the following is correct?

3(x−4)=18">3(x−4)=18

3 / 50

Simplify the expression below.

(5x−1)(3x+2)">(5x−1)(3x+2)(5x−1)(3x+2)

Which of the following is correct?

4 / 50

How many millimeters are there in 5 meters?

5 / 50

Simplify the expression below. Which of the following is correct?

2 − 8 ÷ (2^4 ÷ 2)=

6 / 50

Order the list of numbers below from least to greatest.

−14,π,38,−0.2">

Which of the following is correct?

 

 

7 / 50

Simplify:

(7y^2 + 3xy − 9) − (2y^2 + 3xy − 5)

 

8 / 50

What is 181.5% of 18?

9 / 50

Subtract: 1001 − 99 =

10 / 50

What is 70% of 65?

11 / 50

For a recipe, there are 3 eggs needed for every pound of cake needed. How many pounds of cake can be made if there are 40 eggs? Round to the nearest pound.

12 / 50

Evaluate:

x4−y">x4−yx4−y   if   x">xx = 3 and y">yy = 20

13 / 50

A large clinic administers 1136 doses of vaccine over the course of 16.8 hours. How many doses per hour did the clinic administer? Round to the nearest whole number.

14 / 50

Add: 9.43 + 11.3 =

15 / 50

Multiply: (226)(55.3) =

16 / 50

How many millimeters are there in 5 meters?

17 / 50

Which of the following is equivalent to 0.0009?

18 / 50

Multiply: 58×29=">5/8×2/9=

19 / 50

Convert the following military time to regular time:

15:17:52 hours

20 / 50

Solve the proportion (find the value of x">xx):

9:14::x:56">9:14::x:56

21 / 50

Joe makes $20 an hour and Tim makes $30 an hour. How many hours more than Tim must Joe work to earn the same amount Tim makes in 4 hours?

22 / 50

solve for x:

3(x − 4) = 18

23 / 50

There are 6,657 marbles in a jar. Approximately 34% are white, and the rest are black. How many black marbles are there?

24 / 50

At a comic book store, Robert purchased three comics for $2.65 each. If he paid with a $20 bill, how much change did he receive?

25 / 50

What is the boiling point of water?

26 / 50

A patient is receiving pain relief via a 1000 ml IV bag solution. When the patient has received 300 ml of the IV solution, they have received 2.1 mg of morphine. How many milligrams of morphine were contained in the original 1000 ml IV bag?

(If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest tenth.)

27 / 50

Subtract: 8,674.5 − 998.9 =

28 / 50

Add: 1.332 + 0.067

29 / 50

Multiply: (44.44)(55.55) =

Round to the nearest hundredth.

30 / 50

Divide: 223 ÷ 65 =

31 / 50

Dosing instructions for a prescription oral pain medicine call for 0.4 milligrams per kilogram of body weight 2 times per day. If a patient is taking a total dosage of 44.8 mg/day, what is the patient’s weight in kilograms?

Round to the nearest kilogram.

32 / 50

A rat can finish a maze in about 3 minutes. If a small backpack is put on the rat so it reduces its speed by 50%, how much longer will it take the rat to finish the maze?

33 / 50

A nurse's schedule is written in military time, and shows their shift is from 1500 to 0100. When will they get off work?

34 / 50

Convert 26° Celsius to Fahrenheit.

35 / 50

The probability of a side effect occurring is 0.15. How would this decimal be written as a fraction? Be sure to write in its simplest form.

36 / 50

Multiply: (0.67)(0.09) =

37 / 50

A nurse working at a medical clinic earns $17.81 per hour. The nurse works three 8-hour shifts and one 12-hour shift every week, and is paid weekly. Weekly deductions are: federal tax $102.80, state tax $24.58, federal insurance $18.13, and family health insurance $52.15. What is the nurse's take-home pay each week?

38 / 50

There are 48 students studying foreign language at the community college. The only two foreign languages offered are French and Spanish, and a student cannot take both. If 28 students are studying French, which of the following represents the ratio of students studying Spanish to the total number of foreign language students?

39 / 50

Express the improper fraction 817">81/7 as a whole number with decimal. Round to the nearest tenth.

40 / 50

A patient has a height of 1.6 meters and a weight of 67 kilograms. What is the patient’s BMI (Body Mass Index)?

Use the formula: BMI = mass/height2 where the mass is in kilograms and the height is in meters. (Note: the height is squared in the BMI formula.)

Round to the nearest whole number.

41 / 50

A 0.75% NaCl (Sodium Chloride) solution contains 0.75 mg of NaCl per 100 ml of solution. How many milligrams of NaCl would be contained in 3 liters of the solution? Round your answer to the nearest tenth of a milligram.

42 / 50

If each tablet contains 230 mg of glucose, how many milligrams of this ingredient will there be in 75 tablets?

43 / 50

Divide: 4.6 ÷ 0.3 =

(If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest tenth.)

44 / 50

A prescription medicine has a dosage of 0.6 mg/kg/day divided into three doses per day. If a patient weighs 90 kg, how many milligrams of the medicine would be prescribed per dose? Round to the nearest milligram.

45 / 50

Sandy consumes 13,300 calories over the course of 7 days. How many calories does she consume each day on average?

46 / 50

A patient took 15 ml of medicine 4 times per day for 14 days. In total, how many milliliters of medicine did they take?

47 / 50

An IV solution is set for a certain number of drops per minute. There are 15 drops per milliliter of IV solution. Over the course of 5 hours, 600 milliliters of the IV solution is delivered? How many drops per minute is the IV delivering?

48 / 50

An inpatient received a certain dosage of a drug on Wednesday. The dosage was decreased by 20% on Thursday. If the patient received 464 milligrams of the drug on Thursday, what was the dosage received on Wednesday? Round your answer to the nearest milligram.

49 / 50

At our hospital, 11 out of the 15 nursing staff are LPNs. How could this be represented as a decimal? (If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest hundredth.)

50 / 50

Insulin is being dosed at 1.5 units per kilogram per day. If a patient weighs 160 pounds, how much insulin will they use over the course of one year. There are 0.45 kilograms per pound and 365 days per year.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

HESI A2 Biology Test

The HESI A2 Biology Test focuses on the basics of biology, covering fundamental topics such as molecules, DNA, photosynthesis, metabolism, and genetics. These key concepts are essential to your understanding of the subject, and you’ll need to prepare well for this section to perform effectively. The page with practice questions contains all the topics you’ll need to know, ensuring you’re ready for what’s on the test.

To study effectively, review each concept thoroughly and make sure you understand how they connect to one another. Whether you’re tackling photosynthesis or diving into the details of genetics, being clear on the basics will help you answer the questions confidently. The more familiar you become with the material, the better prepared you will be for the test.

Math- HESI Practice Test

1 / 50

Simplify the expression below. Which of the following is correct?
5,344−57">5,344−57

2 / 50

Solve the equation below. Which of the following is correct?

3(x−4)=18">3(x−4)=18

3 / 50

Simplify the expression below.

(5x−1)(3x+2)">(5x−1)(3x+2)(5x−1)(3x+2)

Which of the following is correct?

4 / 50

How many millimeters are there in 5 meters?

5 / 50

Simplify the expression below. Which of the following is correct?

2 − 8 ÷ (2^4 ÷ 2)=

6 / 50

Order the list of numbers below from least to greatest.

−14,π,38,−0.2">

Which of the following is correct?

 

 

7 / 50

Simplify:

(7y^2 + 3xy − 9) − (2y^2 + 3xy − 5)

 

8 / 50

What is 181.5% of 18?

9 / 50

Subtract: 1001 − 99 =

10 / 50

What is 70% of 65?

11 / 50

For a recipe, there are 3 eggs needed for every pound of cake needed. How many pounds of cake can be made if there are 40 eggs? Round to the nearest pound.

12 / 50

Evaluate:

x4−y">x4−yx4−y   if   x">xx = 3 and y">yy = 20

13 / 50

A large clinic administers 1136 doses of vaccine over the course of 16.8 hours. How many doses per hour did the clinic administer? Round to the nearest whole number.

14 / 50

Add: 9.43 + 11.3 =

15 / 50

Multiply: (226)(55.3) =

16 / 50

How many millimeters are there in 5 meters?

17 / 50

Which of the following is equivalent to 0.0009?

18 / 50

Multiply: 58×29=">5/8×2/9=

19 / 50

Convert the following military time to regular time:

15:17:52 hours

20 / 50

Solve the proportion (find the value of x">xx):

9:14::x:56">9:14::x:56

21 / 50

Joe makes $20 an hour and Tim makes $30 an hour. How many hours more than Tim must Joe work to earn the same amount Tim makes in 4 hours?

22 / 50

solve for x:

3(x − 4) = 18

23 / 50

There are 6,657 marbles in a jar. Approximately 34% are white, and the rest are black. How many black marbles are there?

24 / 50

At a comic book store, Robert purchased three comics for $2.65 each. If he paid with a $20 bill, how much change did he receive?

25 / 50

What is the boiling point of water?

26 / 50

A patient is receiving pain relief via a 1000 ml IV bag solution. When the patient has received 300 ml of the IV solution, they have received 2.1 mg of morphine. How many milligrams of morphine were contained in the original 1000 ml IV bag?

(If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest tenth.)

27 / 50

Subtract: 8,674.5 − 998.9 =

28 / 50

Add: 1.332 + 0.067

29 / 50

Multiply: (44.44)(55.55) =

Round to the nearest hundredth.

30 / 50

Divide: 223 ÷ 65 =

31 / 50

Dosing instructions for a prescription oral pain medicine call for 0.4 milligrams per kilogram of body weight 2 times per day. If a patient is taking a total dosage of 44.8 mg/day, what is the patient’s weight in kilograms?

Round to the nearest kilogram.

32 / 50

A rat can finish a maze in about 3 minutes. If a small backpack is put on the rat so it reduces its speed by 50%, how much longer will it take the rat to finish the maze?

33 / 50

A nurse's schedule is written in military time, and shows their shift is from 1500 to 0100. When will they get off work?

34 / 50

Convert 26° Celsius to Fahrenheit.

35 / 50

The probability of a side effect occurring is 0.15. How would this decimal be written as a fraction? Be sure to write in its simplest form.

36 / 50

Multiply: (0.67)(0.09) =

37 / 50

A nurse working at a medical clinic earns $17.81 per hour. The nurse works three 8-hour shifts and one 12-hour shift every week, and is paid weekly. Weekly deductions are: federal tax $102.80, state tax $24.58, federal insurance $18.13, and family health insurance $52.15. What is the nurse's take-home pay each week?

38 / 50

There are 48 students studying foreign language at the community college. The only two foreign languages offered are French and Spanish, and a student cannot take both. If 28 students are studying French, which of the following represents the ratio of students studying Spanish to the total number of foreign language students?

39 / 50

Express the improper fraction 817">81/7 as a whole number with decimal. Round to the nearest tenth.

40 / 50

A patient has a height of 1.6 meters and a weight of 67 kilograms. What is the patient’s BMI (Body Mass Index)?

Use the formula: BMI = mass/height2 where the mass is in kilograms and the height is in meters. (Note: the height is squared in the BMI formula.)

Round to the nearest whole number.

41 / 50

A 0.75% NaCl (Sodium Chloride) solution contains 0.75 mg of NaCl per 100 ml of solution. How many milligrams of NaCl would be contained in 3 liters of the solution? Round your answer to the nearest tenth of a milligram.

42 / 50

If each tablet contains 230 mg of glucose, how many milligrams of this ingredient will there be in 75 tablets?

43 / 50

Divide: 4.6 ÷ 0.3 =

(If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest tenth.)

44 / 50

A prescription medicine has a dosage of 0.6 mg/kg/day divided into three doses per day. If a patient weighs 90 kg, how many milligrams of the medicine would be prescribed per dose? Round to the nearest milligram.

45 / 50

Sandy consumes 13,300 calories over the course of 7 days. How many calories does she consume each day on average?

46 / 50

A patient took 15 ml of medicine 4 times per day for 14 days. In total, how many milliliters of medicine did they take?

47 / 50

An IV solution is set for a certain number of drops per minute. There are 15 drops per milliliter of IV solution. Over the course of 5 hours, 600 milliliters of the IV solution is delivered? How many drops per minute is the IV delivering?

48 / 50

An inpatient received a certain dosage of a drug on Wednesday. The dosage was decreased by 20% on Thursday. If the patient received 464 milligrams of the drug on Thursday, what was the dosage received on Wednesday? Round your answer to the nearest milligram.

49 / 50

At our hospital, 11 out of the 15 nursing staff are LPNs. How could this be represented as a decimal? (If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest hundredth.)

50 / 50

Insulin is being dosed at 1.5 units per kilogram per day. If a patient weighs 160 pounds, how much insulin will they use over the course of one year. There are 0.45 kilograms per pound and 365 days per year.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

HESI A2 Chemistry Test

The HESI A2 Chemistry test covers a wide range of chemistry concepts, such as atomic structure, equilibrium, stoichiometry, biochemistry, scientific notation, and chemical reactions. Each of these areas is crucial for your understanding of chemistry and plays a significant role in the overall test. To succeed, you’ll need to be familiar with how these concepts are applied in various scenarios.

As you prepare for the test, focus on mastering the details of each concept. Make sure you fully understand atomic structure and stoichiometry, as well as how chemical reactions work and how to use scientific notation in calculations. With the right preparation, you’ll be able to tackle each section confidently and perform well on the test.

HESI-Chemistry Practice Test

1 / 40

An individual has the dominant phenotype for a given trait that shows a simple dominance inheritance pattern. This individual is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual. Half of their offspring have the dominant phenotype, while the other half of their offspring have the recessive phenotype for the trait.

What is the genotype of the parent having the dominant phenotype?

2 / 40

An unknown element is found to contain 45 protons and an atomic mass of 64, what is its atomic number?

3 / 40

Elements that are in the same column of the periodic table are in the same:

4 / 40

What is the purpose of scientific notation?

5 / 40

What is the metric prefix meaning one billionth?

6 / 40

A normal human body temperature in Celsius is:

7 / 40

Which of the following statements about atoms is false?

8 / 40

What are isotopes?

9 / 40

What is the charge on sodium in the compound NaCl ?

10 / 40

A student is observing a chemical reaction occurring with visible bubbling. The bubbling eventually stops. The student can see that some of the original reactants are still intact inside the beaker, so he knows that not all the reactant has been used up. Therefore, the student knows he is now observing:

11 / 40

Which of the following is the atomic mass of an atom containing 31 protons 31 electrons and 37 neutrons?

12 / 40

Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu is an example of what type of reaction?

13 / 40

Which of the following creates a cramping sensation during intense exercise?

14 / 40

DNA is made up of which of the following nucleotides?

15 / 40

What is the total number of sulfur atoms represented in 3 Ca(S04)3?

16 / 40

The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, where 0 is more _____ and 14 is more ______.

17 / 40

Fluorine, oxygen, and nitrogen would each form what type of bond with a hydrogen atom?

18 / 40

Which of the following is an example of a ionic bond?

19 / 40

What does -COOH symbolize?

20 / 40

Given enough time, unstable nuclei will:

21 / 40

The process by which silver nitrate and potassium chloride yields silver chloride and potassium nitrate is an example of which type of chemical reaction?

22 / 40

A scientist discovers an atom of sodium in its natural state. The scientist knows that the oxidation number of this atom is most likely:

23 / 40

How many glucose molecules are required to balance the following reaction:

__C6H12O6 + 24O2 → 24CO2 + 24H2O + Energy

24 / 40

List these common radiation types from weakest to strongest in terms of penetrability: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma radiation.

25 / 40

A chemical drain cleaner that contains sodium hydroxide would be:

26 / 40

Which of the following subatomic particles are found inside of an atom’s nucleus?

27 / 40

Which of the following saccharides are commonly associated with the sweet taste of fruit?

28 / 40

Foods such as oils, milk, and butter contain high amounts of:

29 / 40

DNA features two sugar-phosphate chains that run in opposite directions, with one up and one down. This characteristic is known as:

30 / 40

Which of the following is the correct description of stoichiometry?

31 / 40

In a redox reaction, the element that is oxidized _____ an electron and the element that is reduced _____ an electron.

32 / 40

What characteristic of an element determines its specific isotope?

33 / 40

The addition of a catalyst to a chemical reaction will have what effect?

34 / 40

What is the basic structure of an amino acid?

35 / 40

A concentration of 120.9132 g of MgO in 3 L of solution will be what molality? (The atomic weight are: Magnesium: 24.305 g/mol, Oxygen: 15.9994 g/mol)

36 / 40

Polarity is based on the difference in:

37 / 40

In a complete combustion reaction involving adequate amounts of oxygen and a compound containing carbon and hydrogen, the products are always?

38 / 40

Between which two molecules is a phosphodiesterase bond?

39 / 40

A chemical bond is determined primarily by what particles?

40 / 40

Which of the following correctly describes the oxidation state of the sulfur atom in sulfuric acid?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

HESI A2 Grammar Test

The HESI A2 Grammar Test assesses your knowledge of various aspects of English grammar, including parts of speech, word pairs, and common grammatical mistakes. These topics are essential to ensuring a strong grasp of grammar, and understanding them is key to performing well on the test. To do your best, you need to prepare for this section by reviewing the material thoroughly.

The page with practice questions contains all the important topics you need to know. Be sure to review and understand the questions in order to study effectively and ensure you can easily spot mistakes related to grammar. Once you’ve covered everything, you’ll be ready to tackle this part of the test with confidence.

HESI-Grammar Practice Test

1 / 50

She was _____ exhausted than her sister after they ran the marathon.

2 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

3 / 50

In the following sentence, which is the dependent clause?

The World War II soldier was a hero, especially because of his actions during the invasion of Normandy

4 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

5 / 50

Which word from the following sentence is a noun?

The dog jumped into the air to catch the Frisbee.

6 / 50

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

Germany has _____ bluebells than does England.

7 / 50

Which word in the following sentence is a preposition?

The Vikings travelled in wooden boats across the Atlantic Ocean.

8 / 50

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

Neither of the flower bouquets ______ as full as the one we ordered last year.

9 / 50

Which word in the following sentence is the subject?

The opera singer’s solo had a profound impact on the audience.

10 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

11 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

12 / 50

Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the simple predicate?

Due to her stingy nature, the famous actress was not generous with her friends and family.

13 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

14 / 50

Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence.

_______ confident that with enough study they can easily pass the final exam.

15 / 50

Select the best words for the blank in the following sentence.

To ______ should I address the postcard?

16 / 50

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

The mountaineering group _____ looking forward to climbing K2 next year.

17 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

18 / 50

Which word in the following sentence is grammatically incorrect?

The admissions consultant outlined what makes a thorough application package, unrespective of financial hardship.

19 / 50

In the following sentence, which is the dependent clause?

Sofia won't be able to compete in the race because she wrecked her car.

20 / 50

Which word from the following sentence is a noun?

The real Ichabod Crane was a military officer who met Washington Irving in 1814 at Fort Pike.

21 / 50

Which of the following is an example of a simple sentence?

22 / 50

Which word in the following sentence is a conjunction?

In 1994, Dan Manion set the current record for a deep dive on air at 509 feet, but reported feeling strong effects of narcosis at such a depth

23 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

24 / 50

Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence.

The clock shows ____ almost nine o’clock, so the bridal shop will soon be opening ____ doors.

25 / 50

Select the best punctuation mark for the blank in the following sentence.

Follow these directions to get to the church__ make a left at the next intersection, drive three miles to the third stop sign, then turn left, and continue another two miles until you see the parking lot on the right-hand side.

26 / 50

Which word from the following sentence is a noun?

The medical examiner was called in to perform a post-mortem examination.

27 / 50

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

When the gymnastic athletes travel for a competition, a chaperone must accompany ____.

28 / 50

Select the phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct.

Next year, I __________.

29 / 50

Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the simple predicate?

So many types of birthday cake put Cynthia at a loss.

30 / 50

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

The United States has _____ states than Europe has countries; there are only 47 European countries, but there are 50 states in America.

31 / 50

Which sentence is the clearest?

32 / 50

Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct.

The child ____ to ride all the roller coasters at Disneyland.

33 / 50

Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence.

It’s important _____ research your essay topic thoroughly so you do not include _____ much irrelevant information.

34 / 50

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

The actors’ performances powerfully _____ the audience.

35 / 50

In the following sentence, what is the indirect object?

The mountain climber tossed the Sherpa the rope.

36 / 50

Which of the following sentences has correct subject-verb agreement?

37 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

38 / 50

Which of the following sentences is imperative?

39 / 50

Which word in the following sentence is the subject?

It was the cat that tore up the carpet, not the dog.

40 / 50

Select the word that makes this sentence grammatically correct.

The group knew it was ___ responsibility to turn in the assignment on time, but they still didn’t do it.

41 / 50

Which word in the following sentence is an objective case pronoun?

She wasn’t sure how to tell them that their beloved pet ran away.

42 / 50

Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence.

The doctor ______ the young patient that the vaccine would only take a second and wouldn’t hurt too much.

43 / 50

Select the correct words for the blanks in the following sentence.

Wanda's son swears that ____ happy in his current job, despite all of ____ demands

44 / 50

Select the word not used correctly in the following sentence.

Je'sean sat among his two friends at his school's charity event.

45 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

46 / 50

Which of the following sentences is declarative?

47 / 50

Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence.

Although Remi knew her mom was contagious, she still went to the hospital to see her ____ the window.

48 / 50

Select the correct word or phrase for the blank in the following sentence.

Georges was a great friend to ____, so he shared his freshly baked goods with us.

49 / 50

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

50 / 50

Which word in the following sentence is used incorrectly?

The last hour of his shift was so exhausting, Frank cancels his plans for that night.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

The HESI A2 Vocabulary Test

The HESI A2 Vocabulary Test focuses on key aspects like etymology, verbal ability, and word knowledge that are specific to nursing and health care. This test is designed to assess your understanding of medical terminology and your ability to use it effectively in real-world healthcare scenarios. It’s essential to study the specific vocabulary used in the field to ensure success.

To prepare effectively, make sure you review the most commonly used terms in nursing and health care, and practice identifying their meanings. Knowing the roots of words through etymology will help you break down unfamiliar terms, enhancing both your verbal skills and your word knowledge for the test.

HESI-Vocabulary Practice Test

1 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The patient’s stomach appeared distended, and the physician decided to order an ultrasound.

2 / 50

What is the best definition for the word therapeutic?

3 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

When the lab work returned, it appeared that the patient’s hematologic values were abnormal.

4 / 50

Which word means “to happen again”?

5 / 50

What word meaning “to complete or enhance when added” fits best in the sentence?

In order to retain weight and maintain a good nutritional status, the doctor wanted the patient to ________ his diet with additional foods containing protein.

6 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The medication was ordered to be given as a sublingual dose.

7 / 50

What is the best definition for the word retain?

8 / 50

What word meaning “to make things worse” fits best in the sentence?

The doctor had prescribed an antibiotic to cure the patient’s infection, which had ______ matters by causing a pruritic rash.

9 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The medication could cause a burning sensation, so the pharmacy technician diluted it with normal saline.

10 / 50

What is the best definition for the word latent?

11 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The preexisting condition was covered by insurance, and the patient did not have to pay for surgery

12 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The manifestation of a rash on the patient’s skin indicated that he was allergic.

13 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The girl hadn’t eaten properly for weeks; her cheekbones were nearly concave in shape.

14 / 50

Compensatory is best described as ________.

15 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The doctors who were participating in rounds wanted to know the patient’s status as of this morning.

16 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

In what appeared to be a paroxysmal reaction, the medication only seemed to make the patient’s spasms worse

17 / 50

Select the word that means “to urinate.”

18 / 50

Primary is best defined as:

19 / 50

What word meaning “to bind or inhibit” fits best in the sentence?

The doctor gave an order to ________ the patient as necessary in order to keep the patient from hurting himself.

20 / 50

Select the best meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The musculoskeletal system is expansive and is one of the first body systems to feel the effects of age.

21 / 50

Gender is best described as ______.

22 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The patient’s neurovascular system was compromised and he fainted.

23 / 50

Select the correct definition of the underlined word in the sentence.

The toddler’s ultrasound contained possible foreign bodies in his abdominal cavity.

24 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The nurse made sure to depress the drainage bulb so that it would begin applying suction pressure immediately.

25 / 50

Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct.

The patient was ________ to aspiration, and that’s why they made sure he was sitting upright for dinner.

26 / 50

What is the best definition for the word elevate?

27 / 50

What word meaning “obvious or visible” fits best in the sentence?

The doctor had put his              opinion in the plainest language possible; there was nothing more to be done for the patient besides comfort care.

28 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The nurse reminded the patient that he was ordered to be on strict bed rest until the doctor said otherwise.

29 / 50

What is the best definition for the term pathology?

30 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The labored respirations of the patient began to be far and few between as he slipped peacefully toward death.

31 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The nurse checked that the tube was patent before she connected the patient’s next feeding.

32 / 50

What word meaning “sudden and possibly unexpected” fits best in the sentence?

Although the nursing unit did their best to care for the patient, he passed away in a/n ______ manner when his heart stopped.

33 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The patient decided to abstain from alcohol for the rest of his life, which his family agreed was for the better.

34 / 50

What is the best definition for the word comply?

35 / 50

Select the word that means “important.”

36 / 50

Oral is best defined as:

37 / 50

What word meaning “to absorb or intake” fits best in the sentence?

The patient was brought to the emergency room because he had planned to ______ a lethal amount of Tylenol.

38 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The patient’s exacerbation of sickle cell disease was worsened due to his poor hydration status.

39 / 50

Select the best meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

Peristalsis is a function of the gastrointestinal system that is performed by nerve cells.

40 / 50

Flaccid is best defined as ______.

41 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The drainage coming from the wound had the consistency of mucus but looked like blood.

42 / 50

Select the correct definition of the underlined word in the sentence.

The patient demonstrated a neurological deficit he had not shown prior to the accident.

43 / 50

What is the best definition for the word defecate?

44 / 50

What is the best definition for the word nutrient?

45 / 50

Soon after the surgery, the patient found he had to suppress the urge to vomit. What does “suppress” mean in this context?

46 / 50

What word meaning “heart” fits best in the sentence?

The doctor’s report indicated that the patient’s _______ status was at risk from the medications he was taking.

47 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The patient’s health appeared to be contingent on her taking the medications.

48 / 50

What is the best definition for the term fatigue?

49 / 50

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

Gloves are a required precaution when dealing with blood and other bodily fluids.

50 / 50

What word meaning “issues or characteristics” fits best in the sentence?

Although the patient tested positive for mononucleosis, she showed no _______

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

The HESI A2 Reading Comprehension Test

The HESI A2 Reading Comprehension Test is designed to evaluate your ability to identify key elements in reading passages, including main ideas, supporting details, purpose, and tone. It also includes questions on facts vs. opinions and making logical inferences. These skills are essential for understanding complex texts, which is why the test focuses on these areas.

HESI-Reading Practice Test

1 / 50

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.

Which meal(s) eaten away from home have worse results for dieters than for non-dieters?

2 / 50

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.

Why is it difficult to measure the effect of food away from home on diet quality?

3 / 50

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.

Which statement is not a detail from the passage?

4 / 50

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.

What is the meaning of the word “associated” in the first paragraph?

5 / 50

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.

What is the main idea of the passage?

6 / 50

Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat.

Using data from 1994–96 and 2003–04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (SoFAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and SoFAAS on average more among dieters than among non-dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994–96 and 2003–04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption.

What statement does the author imply?

7 / 50

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.

What is the major difference between matter at the nanoscale and matter at larger scales such as millimeters or inches?

8 / 50

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.

Which claim from the passage best describes the benefits of nanotechnology?

9 / 50

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.

What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this essay?

10 / 50

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.

Which of the following statements is not a detail from the passage?

11 / 50

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.

What is the meaning of the word properties in the passage?

12 / 50

A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use.

What statement is supported by the passage?

13 / 50

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.

Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

14 / 50

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.

Which detail is not included in the passage?

15 / 50

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.

What is the meaning of "eccentric" in the second paragraph?

16 / 50

Questions 13-18 are based on this passage.

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.

When was the first mask designed to protect patients created?

17 / 50

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.

Which of the following is implied?

18 / 50

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.

What is the author’s purpose?

19 / 50

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

The author suggests that persistent passivity and imperturbability may be a direct result of which of the following?

20 / 50

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

Which statement is not listed as a detail within the passage?

21 / 50

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

What is the main idea of the passage?

22 / 50

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

What is the meaning of the word "conglomerate"?

23 / 50

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

What can the reader conclude from the research on amygdala stimulation?

24 / 50

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

25 / 50

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

What statement is implied by the passage?

26 / 50

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.

In the context of the passage, “accommodate” means to

27 / 50

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.

Which of the following metaphors best represents the relationship between corrective lenses and aging eyes?

28 / 50

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.
What was the author’s primary purpose for writing this essay?

29 / 50

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.

Which detail is not in the passage?

30 / 50

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.

Which of the following is the best summary of the essay above?

31 / 50

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.

What is the meaning of the word aberration?

32 / 50

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

Which of the following is an accurate paraphrasing of the underlined phrase?

33 / 50

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

In the context in which it appears, "naked" most nearly means which of the following?

34 / 50

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

Which of the following can NOT be inferred from the passage?

35 / 50

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

The author of the passage suggests which of the following about bacteria?

36 / 50

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

What is the main idea of the passage?

37 / 50

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

Which of the following details is not in the passage?

38 / 50

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

How does the author recommend investing the nodules on the roots?

39 / 50

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.

According to the passage, dietary calcium intake

40 / 50

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.

The passage suggests that in conducting this medical study, researchers

41 / 50

nitially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.

What is the main focus of this passage?

42 / 50

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.

What is the meaning of the word "inversely" as used in the passage?

43 / 50

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.

Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

44 / 50

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.

How did the researchers know the amount of calcium that study participants consumed?

45 / 50

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.

The passage cites all of the following as causing psychological problems for women medical students EXCEPT

46 / 50

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.

The author of the passage is concerned that

47 / 50

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.
The author cites factual information in support of which of the following contentions?

48 / 50

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.

The passage suggests that which of the following would be likely to reduce the isolation felt by women medical students?

49 / 50

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.

In terms of its tone and form, the passage is most appropriately described as

50 / 50

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.

What is the meaning of the word "pervasive" as used in the text?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

To perform well on this test, focus on developing your ability to break down the topics in each passage. Practice recognizing main ideas and distinguishing facts from opinions. Additionally, sharpen your skills in making logical inferences to better understand the context and meaning behind the text. This will help you approach the test with confidence.

HESI Practice Test

It’s crucial to understand that not all subtests listed may be required for you to complete.

Depending on the program you’re enrolled in, you might only need to take the Mathematics, Reading Comprehension, Vocabulary, and Grammar subtests. Certain schools may also require the Biology, Anatomy & Physiology subtests, but the Chemistry subtest is seldom necessary. Be sure to confirm the requirements with the school administrators for more details.

HESI Anatomy Practice Test

HESI-Anatomy and Physiology Practice Test

1 / 50

Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive tract?

2 / 50

What is the best definition of homeostasis?

3 / 50

Which best describes how the endocrine system works?

4 / 50

Which anatomical directional term refers to a body part being located toward the front of the body?

5 / 50

Where is Vitamin K created in the body?

6 / 50

What is the largest organ in the body?

7 / 50

A medical scientist studies the parenchyma of the kidney. What specific type of science is this?

8 / 50

What is erythropoiesis?

9 / 50

Which body part lacks keratin?

10 / 50

What is the relationship between sarcomeres, myofibrils, and muscle cells?

11 / 50

A person who has torn their vastus lateralis muscle will need which of the following?

12 / 50

What is the shaft of a long bone called?

13 / 50

What is primarily regulated by the medulla oblongata?

14 / 50

Which of the following is true about simple reflexes?

15 / 50

Estrogen serves what primary function in the female reproductive system?

16 / 50

What is the name of the structure that transfers urine from the kidneys to the bladder?

17 / 50

Humans can survive most easily without which of the following?

18 / 50

Which of the following is NOT a role of cortisol?

19 / 50

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit the spinal cord?

20 / 50

Which organelles are hair-like extensions that move substances over a cell’s surface?

21 / 50

What is the function of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)?

22 / 50

The neuron is composed of ________, which transmit signals toward the cell body, and a(n) _______, which transmits signals away from the cell body.

23 / 50

Where is the pectoralis major muscle located?

24 / 50

Which is a steroid hormone?

25 / 50

Which pair of hormones regulates blood calcium homeostasis?

26 / 50

Which organ within the digestive system is a site of both mechanical and chemical digestion?

27 / 50

A woman’s body usually ovulates around what day in a normal 28 day cycle?

28 / 50

Where are sperm stored in the male body once produced?

29 / 50

Which of these is the best analogy describing the function of the kidneys?

30 / 50

What is the most widely distributed type of sweat gland?

31 / 50

One child is playing on the playground and decides to climb the castle while another child stays on the ground. When the first child reaches the top of the castle, their position relative to the second child sitting on the ground is ________.

32 / 50

Extending an arm straight out to the side of the body would be described as a(n) _______ movement, while returning it back to the side of the body is a(n) ______ movement.

33 / 50

What plane divides your face in half down the middle?

34 / 50

Which bone is part of the axial skeleton?

35 / 50

Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system?

36 / 50

Which blood vessel returns blood from the systemic circuit to the heart?

37 / 50

What type of hormones are follicle-stimulating hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and luteinizing hormone?

38 / 50

What is the purpose of the mastication of food?

39 / 50

Which hormone stimulates the interstitial cells of the testicles to produce testosterone?

40 / 50

Which of the following happens during inhalation?

41 / 50

What type of bone is the patella?

42 / 50

What does the pulmonary vein do?

43 / 50

Which layer of the epidermis contains cells that undergo mitosis?

44 / 50

Which statement is correct?

45 / 50

What process reduces the number of chromosomes in a cell in half?

46 / 50

Where is adipose tissue located in the skin?

47 / 50

Which section of the vertebral column contains the most vertebrae?

48 / 50

Which of the following glands is correctly matched with a hormone it secretes?

49 / 50

From what type of blood cell are platelets derived?

50 / 50

Where does the chemical digestion of proteins primarily occur within the digestive system?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

HESI Physics Practice Test

HESI PHYSICS- Practice Test

1 / 25

A car drives in a circle in a radius of 145 m and travels 678 m. What is the angular displacement of the car?

 

2 / 25

Suppose the final velocity of a motorcycle is 26 m/s east, and it has an average velocity of 76 m/s east. What is the initial velocity of the motorcycle? Assume that the east direction is the positive direction of motion.

3 / 25

The average speed of a motorcycle is 59 m/s. How far does the motorcycle travel in 2 min?

 

4 / 25

A toy rocket is launched with an initial speed of 48 m/s at an angle of 50°. How far does the projectile travel horizontally after 42 seconds?

 

5 / 25

Two point-like charges carrying charges of + 0.5 μC and – 0.4 μC are 2 m apart. Determine the magnitude of the force between them.

 

6 / 25

A car of 900 kg mass is driven around a circular race track of 600 m radius at a constant velocity of 220 km/h. What is the centripetal force acting on the car?

7 / 25

Two people are pushing a box on the ground. One person applies a force of 146.5 N to the left, whereas the second person applies a force of 90.6 N to the right. What is the net force on the box, and in which direction is it moving? (Ignore the effects of friction)

8 / 25

What would be the frequency of a string wave if it travels at a speed of 67 m/s and has a wavelength of 7.2 meters?

 

9 / 25

An ice skater, who has a mass of 70 kg has 1500 J of Kinetic Energy. What is the velocity of the skater?

 

10 / 25

An object accelerates 62 m/s2 after being acted upon by two opposing forces of magnitudes 120 N to the left and 432 N to the right. What is the mass of the object?

11 / 25

A refrigerator weighs 1300 N. What is its mass?

12 / 25

A 5 kg ball rolls down a hill at a velocity of 1.5 m/s. By the time it reaches the bottom of the hill, it is traveling with a velocity of 2 m/s. What is the change in the ball’s momentum?

13 / 25

A car moving at 45 m/s accelerates uniformly to a speed of 117 m/s in 12 minutes. What is the acceleration of the car?

14 / 25

A basket of oranges sits on a table. The basket has 58.6 J of gravitational Potential Energy and the table is 1.25 m high. What is the mass of the basket?

15 / 25

A cyclist weighs 60 kg, and her bicycle weighs 6.8 kg. What is the momentum of the cyclist when riding her bike at 4 m/s southward?

16 / 25

A fan rotates at a speed of 450 revolutions per second for 5 minutes but then has its speed setting turned down to 240 revolutions per second until 5.5 minutes. What is the angular acceleration of the fan in the period between 5 minutes and 5.5 minutes?

17 / 25

Two objects are placed 75 m apart. If the two objects have masses of 3.6 kg and 3.5 kg, what is the force of attraction between the objects?

18 / 25

What is the general rule for magnetic charges?

19 / 25

An object dropped from a balloon reaches the ground in 80 seconds. At what height was the balloon at the moment the object was dropped?

20 / 25

A box of mass 72 kg is moving across an uneven surface. If the frictional force experienced by the block is 565 N, what is the coefficient of friction between the box and the surface?

21 / 25

Which of the following describes convex lenses?

22 / 25

A ball rolls at 0.86 m/s and decelerates at a uniform rate of 0.43 m/s2. How long will it take for the ball to come to rest?

23 / 25

If the speed of light is 2.0 x 108 m/s in glass, what is the index of refraction for glass?

24 / 25

A 2.4 Volt beard trimmer has a 12 Ohm resistance. What current flows through the trimmer?

25 / 25

What is the image height of a 6 cm tall box that is placed 1.5 cm away from a convex mirror that has an image distance of 4.5 cm?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

Taking HESI Practice Tests

Taking HESI Practice Tests is a crucial step in preparing for the exam. They allow you to evaluate your progress and identify areas where you need to improve. As you take the tests, pay close attention to the questions you get wrong, the ones that are difficult or slow to answer, and those where you have to guess even if you got it right. This helps you target weak areas and improve your understanding of the material.

0

HESI Practice Test

1 / 80

A 2.4 Volt beard trimmer has a 12 Ohm resistance. What current flows through the trimmer?

2 / 80

A box of mass 72 kg is moving across an uneven surface. If the frictional force experienced by the block is 565 N, what is the coefficient of friction between the box and the surface?

3 / 80

A car moving at 45 m/s accelerates uniformly to a speed of 117 m/s in 12 minutes. What is the acceleration of the car?

4 / 80

Two people are pushing a box on the ground. One person applies a force of 146.5 N to the left, whereas the second person applies a force of 90.6 N to the right. What is the net force on the box, and in which direction is it moving? (Ignore the effects of friction)

5 / 80

A car drives in a circle in a radius of 145 m and travels 678 m. What is the angular displacement of the car?

 

6 / 80

Which section of the vertebral column contains the most vertebrae?

7 / 80

What does the pulmonary vein do?

8 / 80

What is the purpose of the mastication of food?

9 / 80

Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system?

10 / 80

One child is playing on the playground and decides to climb the castle while another child stays on the ground. When the first child reaches the top of the castle, their position relative to the second child sitting on the ground is ________.

11 / 80

Where are sperm stored in the male body once produced?

12 / 80

Which pair of hormones regulates blood calcium homeostasis?

13 / 80

What is the function of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)?

14 / 80

Humans can survive most easily without which of the following?

15 / 80

What is primarily regulated by the medulla oblongata?

16 / 80

What is the relationship between sarcomeres, myofibrils, and muscle cells?

17 / 80

A medical scientist studies the parenchyma of the kidney. What specific type of science is this?

18 / 80

Where is Vitamin K created in the body?

19 / 80

Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive tract?

20 / 80

Polarity is based on the difference in:

21 / 80

What characteristic of an element determines its specific isotope?

22 / 80

Foods such as oils, milk, and butter contain high amounts of:

23 / 80

List these common radiation types from weakest to strongest in terms of penetrability: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma radiation.

24 / 80

Given enough time, unstable nuclei will:

25 / 80

Which of the following is an example of a ionic bond?

26 / 80

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

The mountaineering group _____ looking forward to climbing K2 next year.

27 / 80

Which of the following is an example of a simple sentence?

28 / 80

Which word from the following sentence is a noun?

The medical examiner was called in to perform a post-mortem examination.

29 / 80

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

The United States has _____ states than Europe has countries; there are only 47 European countries, but there are 50 states in America.

30 / 80

Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence.

It’s important _____ research your essay topic thoroughly so you do not include _____ much irrelevant information.

31 / 80

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

32 / 80

Select the word that makes this sentence grammatically correct.

The group knew it was ___ responsibility to turn in the assignment on time, but they still didn’t do it.

33 / 80

Select the word not used correctly in the following sentence.

Je'sean sat among his two friends at his school's charity event.

34 / 80

Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence.

Although Remi knew her mom was contagious, she still went to the hospital to see her ____ the window.

35 / 80

Which of the following is a correct description of metaphase during mitosis?

36 / 80

During which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle is DNA replicated?

37 / 80

The plasma membrane of a cell is composed of:

38 / 80

The alternate versions of a single gene are known as:

39 / 80

Which of the following is a typical base pair seen in double-stranded DNA?

40 / 80

During which step of cellular respiration is NADH oxidized to produce ATP and water?

41 / 80

Which of the following correctly compares the molecular orientation of molecules in liquid versus solid water (ice)?

42 / 80

Which of the following descriptions relates to water’s property of cohesion?

43 / 80

A scientist conducts an experiment to discover the effect of music on the growth of pea plants. The scientist hypothesizes that the music will help pea plants grow at a faster rate than pea plants without music. By the end of the experiment, pea plants grown with music playing grew to an average height of 5.6 inches, while pea plants grown without music playing grew to an average height of 2.3 inches.

Which of the following is the correct conclusion from this experiment?

44 / 80

Which part of cellular respiration takes place in the cytosol of the eukaryotic cell?

45 / 80

Which of the following is a way to visualize a family’s history, indicating which individuals had a particular genetic trait?

46 / 80

Which of the following is a reactant of photosynthesis?

47 / 80

If a parent is heterozygous, what percent of its offspring will receive the recessive allele from this parent?

48 / 80

Elements that are in the same column of the periodic table are in the same:

49 / 80

A normal human body temperature in Celsius is:

50 / 80

What is the charge on sodium in the compound NaCl ?

51 / 80

Which of the following is the atomic mass of an atom containing 31 protons 31 electrons and 37 neutrons?

52 / 80

DNA is made up of which of the following nucleotides?

53 / 80

Which word or phrase in the following sentence is the simple predicate?

So many types of birthday cake put Cynthia at a loss.

54 / 80

Questions 13-18 are based on this passage.

Personal protective equipment, or PPE, is used in many fields, but often connected most immediately to the healthcare industry. Medical patients see doctors and nurses donned in gloves, scrubs, gowns, masks, and even glasses or face shields. This practice was not always in effect, however; it took centuries for scientific knowledge to recognize the importance of PPE and implement it across the world.

One of the most iconic examples of early PPE is that of the plague doctor—which, coincidentally, also demonstrates the extreme lack of knowledge humans had on diseases at the time. During the 17th century bubonic plague, doctors could be seen wearing long coats, leather gloves, and ominous-looking beaked masks. This eccentric outfit was to protect the medical professionals from “miasma.” Doctors believed that the plague (and other ailments) were spread through poisoned air; the beaked mask, stuffed with dozens of herbs and perfumes, was meant to purify the air before the physician can breathe it in. The long, curved beak supposedly gave the air enough time to be suffused by the aromatic fumes. This, of course, did nothing to protect the plague doctors.

It took hundreds of years for modern protective equipment to start to take shape. The first rubber surgical gloves were made in 1893 by Goodyear (the tire company), and the first surgical masks were worn in 1897 to keep doctors from coughing or sneezing on patients undergoing surgery. In fact, surgical masks are still for this purpose—not to prevent airborne diseases from being breathed in. A plague in 1910 brought on the development of a mask designed to protect the wearer, which was very important for the dawn of the Spanish flu in 1918. Today, the N-95 masks doctors wear are direct descendants from this early respirator.

Despite their existence, it took a few years for protective wear to catch on. Masks weren’t common until after 1920 following a bit of public mockery of them in previous decades. A study examining a century of surgery photographs discovered that it wasn’t until after 1950 that every person in the operating room wore full medical gear—gloves, masks, scrubs, and caps. Thankfully, PPE is the industry standard now, all the better for both patients and practitioners.

When was the first mask designed to protect patients created?

55 / 80

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

The author suggests that persistent passivity and imperturbability may be a direct result of which of the following?

56 / 80

Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion.

Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects.

What is the meaning of the word "conglomerate"?

57 / 80

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.

In the context of the passage, “accommodate” means to

58 / 80

The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself.

Which detail is not in the passage?

59 / 80

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

The author of the passage suggests which of the following about bacteria?

60 / 80

Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature.

Which of the following details is not in the passage?

61 / 80

Initially, scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, which is thought to lower the risk. As a result, the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones, and the mechanism underlying their formation, required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of 35,119 men ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact, a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly, intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.

Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

62 / 80

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.
The author cites factual information in support of which of the following contentions?

63 / 80

Despite increasing enrollments of women in medical schools, feelings of isolation among women medical students persist. Women students still have to contend with the social stereotype of a male doctor. In addition, institutions themselves may unintentionally foster feelings of separateness. Comparatively few women are hired for faculty positions, thus offering women students few role models. The pervasive sexual humor of male doctors and students further intensifies women students' alienation. Alienation, in turn, negatively affects individual self-perception.

As women enter medical study in increasing numbers, they may feel less at odds with their peers and the teaching establishment. Institutional bias will, no doubt, also change in response to evolving societal values. However, we should not wait passively for gradual social processes to bring changes; schools must provide current students with support services designed to meet women's needs. In a recent study, 48 percent of the women questioned rated a student support group as the most important support service a school can provide.

In terms of its tone and form, the passage is most appropriately described as

64 / 80

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

When the lab work returned, it appeared that the patient’s hematologic values were abnormal.

65 / 80

What is the best definition for the word retain?

66 / 80

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The medication could cause a burning sensation, so the pharmacy technician diluted it with normal saline.

67 / 80

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The doctors who were participating in rounds wanted to know the patient’s status as of this morning.

68 / 80

Primary is best defined as:

69 / 80

Select the correct definition of the underlined word in the sentence.

The toddler’s ultrasound contained possible foreign bodies in his abdominal cavity.

70 / 80

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The nurse reminded the patient that he was ordered to be on strict bed rest until the doctor said otherwise.

71 / 80

What word meaning “sudden and possibly unexpected” fits best in the sentence?

Although the nursing unit did their best to care for the patient, he passed away in a/n ______ manner when his heart stopped.

72 / 80

Oral is best defined as:

73 / 80

Flaccid is best defined as ______.

74 / 80

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

The drainage coming from the wound had the consistency of mucus but looked like blood.

75 / 80

What word meaning “heart” fits best in the sentence?

The doctor’s report indicated that the patient’s _______ status was at risk from the medications he was taking.

76 / 80

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

77 / 80

Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence.

Germany has _____ bluebells than does England.

78 / 80

Which word in the following sentence is the subject?

The opera singer’s solo had a profound impact on the audience.

79 / 80

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

80 / 80

Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence.

_______ confident that with enough study they can easily pass the final exam.

Your score is

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

To make the most of your practice, use these tests to study more effectively. Focus on repetitions to build speed and confidence while reviewing the vocabulary and material. Recognizing where you have trouble will allow you to dive deeper into those areas, helping you to understand them fully and strengthen your weak spots.

How to Study Effectively

To achieve success on your HESI exam, it’s important to approach your studying strategically. The number of hours spent preparing matters, but equally important is ensuring you’re using the right study methods. As you go through the material, check your progress regularly to make sure your efforts are paying off. One of the most effective ways to study is to evaluate your understanding, identify weak areas, and focus your attention on those topics.

Using repetition and practicing regularly will help you build confidence and improve your speed when answering questions. Make sure you’re reviewing all aspects of the vocabulary and the different question types to ensure continuous improvement. By staying consistent and refining your study method, you’ll be well-prepared for test day.

Answer Explanations

When you take HESI practice tests, you may come across a section that provides explanations for the answer choices. While it may be tempting to simply read the explanation and feel confident in your understanding, it’s important to realize that these explanations may only cover part of the question’s broader context. Even if the explanation makes sense, don’t stop there. Go back and do a deeper investigation of the related concepts to make sure you have a thorough grasp of the material.

Ask yourself why you got certain questions wrong or found them difficult, and focus on gaining a more positive and complete understanding of the concepts. This extra effort will ensure you’re truly prepared for the actual test.

Strategy for HESI Practice

  1. Start with No Time Constraints: Begin by taking practice tests without any time constraints, using your notes and study guide. This will help you focus on understanding the material and applying the strategies you’ve learned.
  2. Practice Pacing: On the second practice test, use a timer and set it to simulate test conditions. This will help you practice managing your time while still using an open-book approach.
  3. Simulate Test Day: To make the practice more realistic, take practice tests in an environment similar to the testing center. Sit at a table or desk in a quiet room, and answer questions quickly and accurately, just like you would during the actual exam.
  4. Keep Practicing Regularly: Make practice tests a part of your routine. Take them regularly to keep refreshing your knowledge and improving your skills.
  5. Prepare for Test Day Stress: Repeated practice helps you manage the stress and schedule of the real test, enabling you to stay calm and focused when recalling the material.
  6. Use Additional Resources: Utilize resources like Mometrix flashcards and study guides for extra instruction. These come with a 1-year, risk-free money-back guarantee, ensuring you can keep practicing until you’re fully prepared.
  7. Repetition is Key: Make sure to consistently practice and review the material. Repetition helps build confidence and ensures adequate preparation for the test.

What is the HESI Practice Test?

The HESI Practice Test is a tool designed to help students prepare for the HESI A2 exam by simulating real test conditions. It helps assess progress, identify weak areas, and improve speed and accuracy through repeated practice.

How can I prepare for the HESI Practice Test?

To prepare for the HESI Practice Test, focus on reviewing the key subjects covered in the exam, including mathematics, reading comprehension, vocabulary, and science topics. Utilize practice tests, study guides, and flashcards, and take regular quizzes to improve your knowledge and speed.

Are HESI Practice Tests the same as the real exam?

No, HESI Practice Tests are designed to help simulate the format and timing of the actual test, but the specific questions on the real exam may differ. The practice tests help familiarize you with the test structure and question types.

How often should I take HESI Practice Tests?

It’s recommended to take practice tests regularly, ideally once a week, to track your progress and identify areas where improvement is needed. Focus on weak areas and continue practicing until you feel confident.

Can I use study materials while taking HESI Practice Tests?

Initially, you can use study materials such as your study guide and notes. However, as you progress, simulate test conditions by taking timed practice tests without any materials to build speed and accuracy for the actual exam.